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Originally Posted by 8bit The keyword, however, is take, not copy, but take. I am not taking any property, I am copying the property which belongs to someone else.
Weather or not you want to define it as theft is really trivial, though. Whether you call it theft or not, the impact does not change, and the impact is positive. |
Section 1 of the Theft Act 1968:
"A person shall be guilty of theft if he dishonestly appropriates property belonging to another with the intention of permanently depriving the other of it."
Section three and case law define "appropriating" as assuming any of the rights of the owner in that property, creating copies and distributing ROMs, or indeed playing them, would probably be defined as such a right, the exercise of which would amount to appropriation.
"Property" under section four includes intangible property, such as intellectual property or data (since fiddling with peoples' electronic bank accounts has amounted to theft in the past).
"Belonging to another" under section five means another person is in possession of it, or that another person has a right or proprietary interest in that property. The company in question naturally has a proprietary interest in that data.
"Intending to deprive the other of it" under section six will still be regarded as such even if you don't intend for the other to lose the property permanently, since you're treating the property as if it were yours to dispose of regardless of their rights in it (i.e. the right to the proceeds of the sale thereof).
"Dishonesty" is tested under the
Ghosh case, where if A) by the standards of the ordinary community what you're doing is dishonest, and B) you know that by these standards what you're doing is dishonest, then you have done so dishonestly. Whether or not you consider it moral, it could be argued, is different to whether or not it was dishonest (in much the same way that if you think a lie is justified, it may be justified, but it is still a lie).
If all the above elements are present, then it's very likely that it would be found to be theft. I'm not sure about the dishonest part (since by the standards of the ordinary community I'm sure pirating from big corporations may not be considered dishonest, but they may consider it dishonest if done to a smaller company or an individual's data were he intending to distribute it for a fee and I know people who are totally against pirating, supporting Metallica's campaign against sites like Napster, while doing so themselves and had at one time downloaded movies on a regular basis), but the rest I think pretty much adds up. If all the elements aren't there at the same time (such as you not thinking or knowing it to be dishonest until after you've already done the rest), then it isn't theft, as demonstrated by a case where a man had eaten a meal at a restaurant, then only when the bill arrived and the food had changed its form upon consumption (becoming his property and part of his body) did he form the intent to refuse to pay for it after an argument.
There was a case however where a man had taken some reels of film from a cinema he worked at, made some copies of that film, and returned them to the cinema in the same condition as he'd found them, and he was not found guilty of theft (perhaps of another offence, but not of S.1 Theft), but I doubt the argument was raised that he was denying the company their right to earn the money from the people he was distributing it to by giving it to them for free, effectively "appropriating" it.
Now whether or not I agree with piracy or whether or not it's good or bad isn't what I'm discussing here. I'm just talking about whether or not it's theft, which, under English law, I think it would be (although that's just from my interpretation of the act). Just flexing my legal muscles since it's been a long summer.
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Originally Posted by Tonchiki Why not just make every product free ever? |
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Originally Posted by 8bit Yes, why not? |
